Why did the earls not need to submit to William initially?

Why did the earls not need to submit to William initially?

• A. He had only taken over Wessex; Mercia and Northumbria remained powerful
• B. London was undefended
• C. The earls believed in Edgar's stronger claim
• D. The earls were loyal to Harold and opposed William

Answer: (A)

Conquest at that stage was a regional process, not a single, countrywide takeover. William could project power and enforce obedience only where he had actually secured control. In the early period, his forces had established authority in the south, especially Wessex, while Mercia and Northumbria still mattered as powerful, semi-independent regions with strong earls. Because those northern and midland areas hadn’t fallen under Norman rule yet, the earls there did not yet need to submit to William. The other options rely on conditions that weren’t yet in place—London’s defenses, Edgar’s competing claim, or widespread loyalty to Harold—so they don’t explain why submission wasn’t needed initially.

Conquest at that stage was a regional process, not a single, countrywide takeover. William could project power and enforce obedience only where he had actually secured control. In the early period, his forces had established authority in the south, especially Wessex, while Mercia and Northumbria still mattered as powerful, semi-independent regions with strong earls. Because those northern and midland areas hadn’t fallen under Norman rule yet, the earls there did not yet need to submit to William. The other options rely on conditions that weren’t yet in place—London’s defenses, Edgar’s competing claim, or widespread loyalty to Harold—so they don’t explain why submission wasn’t needed initially.